Re: Def. judgment geeks pls chime in

You know I'm kind of dense when it comes to this kind of info. The code says no def. judgment after sale. Which sale? There was a sale on the first. So, ok, no def. judgment allowed for the lender on the first. Does that sale exclude the lender on the second or jr. liens? The second didn't go to sale. And in this case the 2nd was not the same lien holder as the first. The 2nd's lien was eliminated per CA foreclosure laws upon foreclosure of the 1st, but what about the 2nd's note? Is it so clear to everyone but me? Oh, wait, CA Civil Code....always so clear. As usual, case law usually helps. At least then I can know what the judges thought the legislature meant.