Is 2nd mort. dissolved if owner bids on 1st mort.?

Greetings to all,
Been a long time lurker and live in NM, a mortgage state, and have read with interest the challenges on CA foreclosure investing. I don't think my scenario type question here will be state specific.

If an owner managed to have the cash (lotto winner, rich uncle) and was the high bidder at a sale where the first was foreclosing, would the 2nd be extinguished or would it survive since the original owner is buying the property?

1) ie; Foreclosing first goes full judgment+ @ $100k and homeowner is high bidder. If there's a $20k 2nd, would it be wiped out or survive?

2) Along similar lines; with no 2nd this time. Judgment is $100k and bank drop bids in @ $70k and owner buys at that bid. Would this sale hold and the owner buys his house back at $70k? Maybe a $30k deficiency judgment rendered by the bank?

Thoughts?

Darryl