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Abstract of Judgement...

Posted by John-CA on April 17, 2003 at 4:19 PM

Hi, Ward

Question about an AJ. If I took a property sub2 mortgage (say, in a preforeclosure situation) and there was an outstanding AJ, when will that have to be paid off? Could I wait until I sold the property retail down the road or would I have pay it off immediately? In fact, what prevents the seller from just deeding me the property to my name and, hence, seperating the AJ lien from this particular property? And how is this lien going to even show up on a title search when I eventually sell it retail? It's not attached to me but to the former owner (it's a "general" lien). I guess I don't understand these as well as I thought.

John-CA


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