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clarification requestedIn Reply to: Requirements of §1695 posted by Ward-CA- on April 03, 2004 at 5:54 PM
: : : Looking for answers, and your views on this: : : Where does the realtor, who listed the property, that is on NOD, or T. Sale. Doesn't he/she has to follow the 1695? : : These questions that I ask, not too many people can answer, even some of the people teaching foreclosure can't. : : Ignorance of the law won't help them, either from losing their license. : : Rob : ======================= : If the agent's buyer is going to move into the home, then they are completely exempt from the requirements of Calif. Civil Code §1695. : But if the property is bought for investment purposes, where the buyer has no intention of using the property as their personal residence, then they have to follow the strictures of the code. And you're right, ignorance of the law is no defense. How would a selling agent that is working with an investor to buy a home that is listed in the MLS know that the property is in NOD stage until they receive the prelim. at which time the escrow may have been open for some time. Someone might say that the listing agent should place this info in the MLS or offering however seller may not want this info published as it could hinder their negotiating position and they also might not wanted published for privacy and/or pride reasons. A listing agent that splashes "NOD filed" and/or "Foreclosure sale pending" etc. could face problems from seller. Does the statue apply to a listing contract as Rob states?
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