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Had To Think About That A WhileIn Reply to: Re: Improperly Reversed Sale? posted by Bill H on November 08, 2003 at 4:01 PM I almost posted a reply, challenging your explanation. But I think I get it. The reasoning is: A person on the trust deed, is beholden to a creditor, and needs automatic stay to sort out his BK filing. The reasoning is not: An owner of real estate needs automatic stay, to help protect his home. I.e. if in my example, the husband had QCD to his cousin, and the cousin filed bankruptcy, that would have no effect on anything. The cousin doesn't owe money to anybody in the foreclosure process.
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