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Foreclosure Forum |
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Yes, if it's within the norm...In Reply to: Re: prepayment penalty posted by bh1240 on February 27, 2004 at 8:12 PM : Does that mean if previous owner sold the house by herself,she still had to pay prepayment penalty? What is Mr. Ward's opinion? ==================== Yes, my opinion is that if the prepayment is in conformity with CA’s requirements then it is enforceable, especially in a normal resale within the first five years of the loan.
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