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unconsciable advantage

Posted by Keith on February 12, 2004 at 6:58 PM

Am I right in my understanding that
1. offering a 50/50 split to a homeowner in default that has significant equity is generally accepted as being fair or not taking unconsciable adavantage of the homeowner,
2. the 50/50 equity split is figured after cost of acquisition, fix-up, holding, marketing, etc.,
3. there needs to be at least 50 to 60k equity or more depending on needed repairs for a homeowner to expect much if anything, and
4. if I buy a house from a homeowner in default to occupy as my personal residence I am exempt from the code.

Thanks for any input I know its kinda long.


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