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Re: Lender's opening bid is a bid....

Posted by jeff on December 18, 2003 at 6:35 AM

In Reply to: Lender's opening bid is a bid.... posted by Ward-CA- on December 17, 2003 at 5:48 PM

: : Minimum bid is set at $220k
: : Only lien on the property forecloses - this lien is for $100k
: : Only bid at auction is lienholder, which bids minimum.
: : Does this mean (i) the lienholder owns the property, and (ii) must pay the mortgagee $120k, which is the overbid? Or does that overbid (that is, distribution of excess) only apply when the bidder is other than the plaintiff/lienholder?

: : I searched for an answer in the database w/out any success - thank you in advance for your response.

: ==================

: Jeff,

: The opening bid at a foreclosure sale is the total amount owed the foreclosing lender. So if the minimum bid that was set was $220K then that is what was owed the lender.

: If no outside bidder topped the lender's opening bid then the lender gets title to the property for the amount of their opening bid.

: Hope this helps.

I failed to mention an important fact - the minimum bid in this case is set by statute - this creates the possibility that the opening bid is higher than the lien.
I will check in the law library and let you know what I find in case the issue arises in other states.


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