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Re: Judicial vs non-judicial foreclosures

Posted by David on August 14, 2003 at 5:01 PM

In Reply to: Judicial vs non-judicial foreclosures posted by Ward-CA- on August 14, 2003 at 3:09 PM


: Dave,

: Your interpretation of the "one action" rule is in error. It really applies to trying to effect a foreclosure sale more than once for the same delinquency.

: It has absolutely nothing to do with obtaining a deficiency judgment against the borrower in the instance where the foreclosure auction doesn't result in the property being sold to an outside bidder.


Ward,

You stated a couple of posts above that a borrower could be liable for the deficiency depending on the type of loan. My point was that the type loan is irrelevant (recourse or non-recourse) if the lender chooses a non-judicial foreclosure, there is no deficiency allowed.

Sorry about bringing the one action rule into the discussion, you’re right, it has nothing to do with a deficiency.

Dave


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