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Is it leagal to lease to own using the leasee's money?

Posted by Gene on October 05, 2001 at 12:35 AM

Hello Ward,

I'm from Whitier CA. And what I'm asking is if it's leagal to purchase a foreclosed home by borrowing say toms money who could not get in to a home because of credit issues or ignorance. I them turn around and sell him the property at market value with a rent to own contract. What I did is tell Tom I can get him a home with say $10,000.00. Turn around purchase a forclosed home(Tom does not know of this), I hold the deed but I rent the property to Tom with a contrat that will give Tom Ownership of the property after paying say $100,000 in a 20 years. Is this leagal?
If not, what would be leagal? I don't have money and my credit is bad. But unlike Tom I'm searching for a way to help my self and help others along the way!

Thanks,
Gene


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