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Foreclosure Forum |
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EvictIn Reply to: Evict or not to evict! posted by Mason MP on November 20, 2009 at 1:34 PM The tenant's "lease" is most likely subordinate to the foreclosing lender's TD. It would be rare to see a recorded Memorandum of Agreement (as to a lease) in a senior position on residential property. Therefore, my best guess is that the "lease" claim would have been wiped off by the action of the foreclosure. What would remain is the possessory right like any other 3rd-party holdover tenant. Anybody else have a different interpretation?
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