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Allocation of Profit and Risk to Investors

Posted by Sean Wagle on April 10, 2002 at 11:05 PM

Considering that a foreclosure deal takes several months for the "ringleader" to bring it from purchase to resale, how would investor profit be fairly allocated, considering that each deal could have a different percentage of investor money as available?

For example, in a deal with 90% of your own money, and 10% from a passive investor, it would seem reasonably fair to just split the profit 90/10.

But if it was the other way around, then you wouldn't want to do all the heavy lifting for only 10%, and hand off 90% just for "backing". (And it probably wouldn't be worth the time and effort for such a small slice.)

I had a relative invest in a rehab business that promised 20% returns. The market slowed, the business owner stopped paying, and she had to put liens on him. She did get payed back, after a while, so at least it wasn't a scam or a sad story in the end.

But it makes me think the best way to do deals is by percentage share of the risk. Promising anyone a fixed return is unrealistic, because of all the uncertainties of the game. Have you had to face your investors and say "Sorry, we lost on this one. Wanna try again?"


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