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still confused on this sale

Posted by Wonder Land on September 12, 2008 at 4:08 PM

In Reply to: When foreclosing on an involuntary lien... posted by Ward-CA- on September 12, 2008 at 3:58 PM

Hi Ward,

I am still confused on this sale of why it is "subject to redemption". Here is what happened. This is a REO, bank hasn't paid HOA due for about 8 months. So HOA let trustee foreclosure the condo. I checked the NOD and NTS, it is non-judicial sale, just like all other non-judicial trustee sales, no different. But why no trustee's deed was issued, instead of a "Certificate of foreclosure sale -- subject to redemption" was delivered.

I couldn't figure out why. May be as Tom said there is something special laws for bank owned houses?

Thanks,
Wonder

:
: Trustee’s only process non-judicial sales in CA. Judicial foreclosures are instigated and processed by attorneys.

: A judgment creditor who wants to resort to foreclosing on their judgment lien will have to do a judicial foreclosure on their judgment since typically there’s no specification for a trustee in their borrowing documentation.

: -------Ward

: ==============

: This sale must be a judicial sale (I need to confirm this. Since it was in CA, so I automaticly thought it was nonjudicial sale), the owner is a bank (REO house), who didn't pay HOA fee, and was foreclosed.
: I am wondering in what situation in nonjudicial state like CA that trustee must do judicial sale instead of nonjudicial sale?
: Thanks,
Wonder



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